2014년 2월 7일 금요일

GIAC GCPM 덤프데모

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시험 번호/코드: GCPM
시험 이름: GIAC (GIAC Certified Project Manager Certification Practice Test)
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NO.1 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are performing a task to generate a hierarchical list of
resources related by function and resource type that is used to facilitate planning and controlling of project
work. Which of the following components of project management will you use to accomplish the above
task?
A. PERT chart
B. RBS
C. Gantt chart
D. WBS
Answer: B

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NO.2 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. Which of the following processes will you use to formalize
the acceptance of the completed project deliverables?
A. Verify scope
B. Report performance
C. Expert judgment
D. Perform quality control
Answer: A

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NO.3 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are working on several projects. Your projects vary in
size and budget. You have to calculate the ratios of schedule and cost compared to plan, so that you can
compare relative schedule and cost performance of each project. Which of the following components of
EVM provide measures of schedule and cost performance that are not affected by the size of the project?
A. BAC and EAC
B. CPI and SPI
C. CV and SV
D. PV and EV
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are a new Project Manager that has been entrusted with a software development project that is in
progress. A sub-contracting company has been awarded a cost reimbursable contract to do the
development work on this project, and the project has been completed. While trying to close this
procurement, you discover that still there are some unresolved claims. However, the sub contract
company does not accept that these claims are unresolved. Which of the following is the best method for
reaching the final equitable settlement?
A. Litigation
B. Mediation
C. Direct negotiation
D. Alternative dispute resolution
Answer: C

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NO.5 Which of the following processes describes the statement below?
"It consists of the processes required to ensure that the project contains all the work required to complete
the project effectively."
A. Project communications management
B. Project scope management
C. Risk management
D. Project human resource management
Answer: B

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NO.6 You are the program manager for your project. You are working with the project managers regarding
the procurement processes for their projects. You have ruled out one particular contract type because it is
considered too risky for the program. Which one of the following contract types is usually considered to be
the most dangerous for the buyer?
A. Cost plus incentive fee
B. Time and materials
C. Cost plus percentage of costs
D. Fixed fee
Answer: C

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NO.7 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You have to subdivide project
deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable components. Which of the following
processes will you use to perform the above task?
A. Create WBS
B. Verify scope
C. Control scope
D. Define activities
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following are the characteristics of the project life cycle?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Cost and staffing are low at the start, are high as the work is carried out, and decrease as the project
comes towards the end.
B. Stakeholders influences, risk, and uncertainty are at peak in the beginning of the project.
C. Skills to influence the final characteristics of the project's product, without much impact on cost, is at
peak in the beginning of the project and reduces as the project progresses towards completion.
D. It is limited by constraints, including resource constraints.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.9 Which of the following techniques is described in the statement below?
"It evaluates the abstract early start and finish dates and late start and finish dates for all activities devoid
of any resource limitations by performing a forward and backward pass analysis through the schedule
network."
A. Resource utilization
B. Critical path method
C. Critical Chain method
D. Resource leveling heuristic
Answer: B

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NO.10 James works as the project manager for a software project. He and his team are on the Direct and
Manage Project Execution process. All of the following are inputs of this process except for which one?
A. Project charter
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Approved environmental requests
E. Project management plan
Answer: A

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NO.11 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are in the project kickoff meeting. Which of the
following documents are reviewed during the project kickoff meeting?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Project budget
B. Project WBS
C. Project charter
D. Project scope
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following is described in the statement below.?
"It is a group of sequential and related project phases that are defined by the organization and control
needs of the management or organizations concerned with the project, the nature of the project itself, and
the application area."
A. Verify scope
B. Project charter
C. Activity list
D. Project life cycle
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are a Project Manager in your organization who is managing a considerably huge budget project
to develop new software. Considering the varied nature of your stakeholder group, you would like to put
together a plan as to what information the stakeholders need, and how to provide that information. What
is the document that you would need, and as part of which process group would you achieve this?
A. Communications Management Plan, Execution Process group
B. Project Management Plan, Planning Process Group
C. Communications Management Plan, Planning Process Group
D. Project Management Plan, Initiating Process Group
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following is described in the statement below?
"It is a tool that defines a project and groups the project's discrete work elements in a way that helps
organize and define the total work scope of the project."
A. WBS
B. RBS
C. Gantt chart
D. Critical path
Answer: A

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NO.15 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. Which of the following stages of the process group, if not
performed well by you, is unlikely that the project will be successful in meeting the business needs?
A. Monitoring and controlling
B. Initiation
C. Executing
D. Planning and design
Answer: B

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NO.16 Which of the following processes formally permits the initiation of a project and marks the kickoff for all
consequent development activities to begin?
A. Develop project scope statement
B. Develop project management plan
C. Develop project charter
D. Develop project team
Answer: C

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NO.17 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. A new project has been proposed to change all keyboards
of every computer in your organization. There are 1,600 keyboards that will need to be removed and
replaced with wireless keyboards. What document will you first need to start this project?
A. Project risk statement
B. Risk register
C. Project charter
D. Contract for new keyboards
Answer: C

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NO.18 You are the project manager of the NHT Project. This project has 12,345 office doors to install
throughout a campus. Each of the doors costs the project $456 and requires special hardware to
electronically lock and open the doors. You've gathered the project team before they begin the installation
for a hands-on training. As a group you and the project team install 50 doors following a checklist of
instructions so that every door will be installed exactly the same throughout the campus and with minimal
waste. This is an example of what project execution technique?
A. Preventive action
B. Implemented corrective action
C. Quality control
D. Defect repair validation
Answer: A

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NO.19 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You report the project details directly to the vice president
and the administrator of your organization. In which of the following types of organization structures are
you working?
A. Functional
B. Matrix
C. Jury
D. Projectized
Answer: B

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NO.20 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. Which of the following techniques will you use to
determine whether particular work can best be accomplished by the project team or must be purchased
from the outside sources?
A. Expert Judgment
B. Make-or-Buy Analysis
C. Contract Types
D. Procurement Negotiations
Answer: B

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NO.21 You are in a project to create a Website. Your project team has met a few times and you're working
with them to develop the project's WBS. Jan, a marketing expert, is in disagreement with Larry over how
the Website should function. Gary and Gina are in disagreement over who'll take the lead on the design of
the software for the Website. Mark, Mary, and Martha are all bickering about the photo management
approach for the Website's pictures. What stage of team development is your project team currently in?
A. Forming
B. Storming
C. Performing
D. Norming
Answer: B

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NO.22 You are the project manager for your organization. Marcy, a project stakeholder, is demanding that you
add some deliverables to your project scope for free. You explain to Marcy that it's too late in the project
execution to consider adding these deliverables, as most of the software your project team is creating is
nearly done. Marcy and you escalate the issue to management.
Management decides that you will add the deliverables to the project scope if Marcy pays a significant fee
and allows you additional time to complete the project. What conflict resolution method has management
offered?
A. Issue management
B. Compromising
C. Forcing
D. Confronting
Answer: B

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NO.23 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are performing steps to carry out and finish the
project according to the measures drawn through the planning stage. Which of the following stages of the
project are you working on?
A. Monitoring and controlling
B. Closing
C. Initiation
D. Execution
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following components of EVA is described in the statement below?
"It is a measure of how much of the project value has been earned so far through completed work, that is,
the budgeted cost of the work that has been performed through the project status date."
A. PV
B. AC
C. SV
D. EV
Answer: D

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NO.25 Which of the following are the characteristics of a project?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Its success is measured by evaluating whether it meets or exceeds expectations of the stakeholders.
B. It is temporary in nature and has a definite beginning and ending date.
C. It is completed when the project goals are achieved.
D. It is common in nature.
Answer: A,B,C

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NO.26 Diane is the project manager of the HGF Project. A risk that has been identified and analyzed in the
project planning processes is now coming into fruition. What individual should respond to the risk with the
preplanned risk response?
A. Diane
B. Risk owner
C. Subject matter expert
D. Project sponsor
Answer: B

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NO.27 You work as a project manager for Xxxx Inc. You are working on a project that has a budget of
$805,000 and you have completed 45 percent of the project work. Due to some errors, however, you have
actually spent $430,000 of the budget. Management wants to know the project's cost performance index.
Which of the following values will you report?
A. 0.87
B. 0.80
C. 0.84
D. 0.86
Answer: C

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NO.28 You are using the PDCA model to determine, implement, monitor, control, and maintain Information
Security Management System or ISMS. You have to evaluate the new processes and match up to the
results against the probable results to determine the differences. In which of the following phases of the
PDCA are you working?
A. Do
B. Act
C. Plan
D. Check
Answer: D

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NO.29 Charlie has just completed the project according to the terms of the contract. She and the customer
are completing a walk through of the project deliverables, and the customer is asking for changes to the
deliverables before she'll accept the product. What project management process should manage the
documented change request that may come from scope verification?
A. Scope management
B. Perform integrated change control
C. Control Scope
D. Control change control
Answer: B

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NO.30 Which of the following processes formally permits the initiation of a project and marks the kickoff for all
consequent development activities to begin?
A. Develop project charter
B. Develop project management plan
C. Develop project scope statement
D. Develop project team
Answer: A

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NO.1 You have identified a task in your task list that cannot be completed until the inspector for the project
signs off on the initial deliverables. The inspector's signoff on the initial deliverables is called what?
A. Assumption
B. Dependency
C. Milestone
D. Constraint
Answer: B

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NO.2 When an organization is using a change-driven approach to business analysis, how are
communications managed?
A. Communications in a change-driven approach to business analysis focus more on the
frequency of communication.
B. Communications in a change-driven approach typically use face-to-face channels.
C. Communications in a change-driven approach focus more on formal communications.
D. Communications in a change-driven approach are all ad hoc.
Answer: A

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NO.3 All of the following stakeholders participate in the prioritization of requirements except for which one?
A. Implementation subject matter expert
B. Project team
C. Domain subject matter expert
D. Project manager
Answer: B

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NO.4 What type of a business analysis approach focuses on the rapid delivery of business value in short
iterations?
A. Risk-driven
B. Change-driven
C. Risk-laden
D. Profit-driven
Answer: B

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NO.5 When do change requests generally increase in a project?
A. During the project's launch.
B. Towards the beginning of the project.
C. During the project scope management processes.
D. Towards the end of the project.
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are the business analyst for your organization and have many solutions available to an identified
problem. You would like a way to quickly and fairly determine which solution is the best choice for your
organization. Which of the following approaches would allow you to determine the top-rated solutions for
your organization?
A. Scoring system
B. Acceptance and evaluation criteria
C. Vendor assessment
D. Voting system
Answer: A

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NO.7 Wanda is the business analyst for her organization and she is currently working on the specify and
model requirements process. One of the elements of this process is the documentation of the textual
requirements. Wanda must describe the capabilities of the solution, any conditions that must exist for the
requirements to operate, and what third component of the textual requirement?
A. Any constraints that may prevent the solution from fulfilling the requirement
B. Write in the active voice
C. Describe a situation or problem
D. Express only one requirement at a time
Answer: A

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NO.8 You are the business analyst for your organization and are creating the solution scope definition.
Which of the following should be included in the solution scope definition?
A. Business case
B. Technical dependencies
C. Elicitation techniques
D. Organization readiness assessment
Answer: B

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NO.9 What plan will describe the stakeholder groups, communication needs, and the level of formality that is
appropriate for the requirements?
A. Requirements management plan
B. Project management plan
C. Scope management plan
D. Business analysis communication plan
Answer: D

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NO.10 You are the business analyst for a smaller project where there are few requirements. Management
would still like you to create a method to trace the few requirements for this project. What type of matrix
would be best in this instance?
A. Roles and responsibility matrix
B. RACI matrix
C. Coverage matrix
D. Requirements trace matrix
Answer: C

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NO.11 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked that you create a method to
store the project requirements including those under development, under review, and the requirements
which have been approved. What is management asking you to create?
A. A change management system
B. A repository
C. A project scope statement
D. A requirements register
Answer: B

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NO.12 Ben is the business analyst for his organization. Ben is currently working on a solution to improve a
laser printer. He has taken the laser printer apart, identified each component, and documented each
component's purpose. What type of requirements organization is Ben doing in this scenario?
A. Process modeling
B. Data modeling
C. Functional decomposition
D. Scope modeling
Answer: C

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NO.13 The business analysis approach generally defines all of the following attributes except for which one?
A. Requirements for solutions acceptance
B. Deliverables
C. Team roles
D. Analysis technique
Answer: A

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NO.14 Gary is the business analyst for his organization and he is preparing a presentation about the
requirements for a large software development project. Before Gary makes the presentation what should
he do as part of his preparation for the presentation?
A. Determine an appropriate format for the presentation.
B. Confirm that he has the authority to host the presentation.
C. Confirm that the stakeholders have signed off on the requirements.
D. Hire a scribe to keep the minutes of the meeting.
Answer: A

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NO.15 Paul is the business analyst for his organization. He is examining a single solution to determine if the
solution he and his team have identified carries enough business value to justify its implementation. What
business analysis process is Paul performing in this scenario?
A. Define transition requirements
B. Assess proposed solution
C. Assess organizational readiness
D. Allocate requirements
Answer: B

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NO.16 Sally is the business analyst for her organization. Sally and her business analysis team is currently
using a business analysis approach to determine what the competition of her organization is offering
prospective clients. She is trying to identify solutions to increase revenue by remaining competitive with
the competition. What business analysis approach is Sally and her business analysis team using?
A. Business rules analysis
B. Functional decomposition
C. Focus groups
D. Benchmarking
Answer: D

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NO.17 Fred's organization is using a plan-driven approach for the business analysis deliverables. In this
approach how will the requirements be captured?
A. Fred will use the appropriate documentation at the discretion of the business analysis team .
B. Fred will use the project management information system.
C. Fred will use whatever business analysis forms are most appropriate.
D. Fred will use standardized templates.
Answer: D

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NO.18 What is the term used to describe the cost of the solution after the solution has been implemented in
production by a vendor?
A. Total ownership costing
B. Lifecycle maintenance fees
C. Sustainability fees
D. Total cost of ownership
Answer: D

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NO.19 You are the business analyst for your organization and working with Tim to identify the
assumptions within the business solution. Which one of the following is an assumption?
A. The vendor believes the hardware should arrive by December 1
B. The software must be compatible with Windows Vista
C. The software must cost less than $99 per license
D. The hardware must costs less than $450 per unit.
Answer: A

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NO.20 What business analysis element tries to identify as many potential options as possible to meet the
business objectives and fill identified gaps in capabilities?
A. Ranking of approaches
B. Decision analysis
C. Documentation of assumptions and constraints
D. Alternative generation
Answer: D

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NO.21 You are creating the solution scope for an identified problem in your organization. You are working with
several stakeholders during this process including the domain subject matter expert, the implementation
subject matter expert, the project manager, and the sponsor. Which of these stakeholders will be
responsible for writing the project scope?
A. Domain subject matter expert
B. Business analyst
C. Project manager
D. Sponsor
Answer: C

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NO.22 You are working with Terry on the conduct stakeholder analysis task as part of the business analysis
duties in your company. Terry wants to know why it's so important to identify stakeholders so early in the
business analysis duties. Which one of the following statements best addresses the need to identify the
stakeholders early on in the business analysis duties?
A. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the business analyst knows who to report to.
B. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the business analyst knows who to bill for the project.
C. It's important to identify the stakeholder so the business analyst can help ensure the timely delivery of
the requirements deliverables.
D. It's important to identify the stakeholders so the stakeholders know who the business analyst is.
Answer: C

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NO.23 You are the business analyst for your organization. Gary and Janet, two key stakeholders in the project,
are in disagreement over a requirement for the type of software to be installed on the server your solution
calls for. What must happen in this instance before formal approval can be offered?
A. The conflict will need to be resolved through research, resolution, or through a third-party mediation.
B. Gary and Janet will need to determine who has seniority in the company to determine which
requirement takes precedence.
C. The conflict will need to be removed from the solution scope until Gary and Janet come to a solution.
D. The business analyst will need to make a decision on which requirement is most appropriate.
Answer: A

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NO.24 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management has asked that you create a model of
the requirements so the stakeholders can better understand the requirements and the project as a whole.
Which of the following statements best describes a model?
A. Models are slices of the project solution.
B. Models simplify the requirements for common stakeholders.
C. Models are statistics for the return on investment, time saved, and other mathematics.
D. Models abstract and simplify reality.
Answer: D

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NO.25 Nancy has asked you to trace a particular requirement for her. What does 'to trace a requirement'
mean?
A. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links risk,
cost, quality, and scope elements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by
the team and to solution components.
B. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links
business requirements to stakeholder and solution requirements to other artifacts created by the team
and to solution components.
C. Tracing a requirement means to look at a requirement and the others to which it is related. It links
business requirements to components in the project's work breakdown structure.
D. Tracing a requirement means to track a requirements from its first identification all the way to its
completion to see what issues, risks, costs, quality, and defects have surrounded the requirement
Answer: B

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NO.26 You are the business analyst for your organization. Management wants you to prioritize the identified
requirements by the requirements that have the highest likelihood of success. Why would management
want you to prioritize the requirements with this factor even though some of the requirements may be
difficult to implement?
A. They want a fast return on investment.
B. They want to show early success in the implementation to the project stakeholders.
C. They don't understand the requirements.
D. They want to avoid penalties or fines due to a pending law.
Answer: B

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NO.27 What part of defining the business needs process will evaluate the ends that the organization is
seeking to achieve?
A. Business goals and objectives
B. Alternative identification
C. Solution assessment
D. Requirements
Answer: A

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NO.28 One of the processes within requirements analysis is to prioritize requirements. As a business analyst
why would you ever want to prioritize requirements?
A. You may need to determine the cost of each requirement.
B. You may need to determine the schedule for each requirement.
C. You may need to determine which requirements are most critical so the analysis and
implementation efforts focus on the most critical requirements.
D. You may need to determine which requirements are most critical so additional risk analysis can be
completed on those requirements.
Answer: C

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NO.29 You are the business analyst for your organization and are working with Jennifer to conduct
stakeholder analysis. You would like to create a RACI chart to help with the roles of the people involved in
the stakeholder analysis process. Jennifer is not familiar with this chart and asks what does RACI mean.
Which one of the following best describes the RACI chart in the conduct stakeholder analysis process?
A. It's a matrix that uses the Responsible, Accountable, Consult, and Inform tasks as part of the
stakeholder analysis process.
B. It's a role and responsibility chart that identifies when stakeholders are needed in the business analyst
duties.
C. It's a matrix that uses Role, Action, Consult, and Inform as part of the conduct stakeholder analysis
process.
D. It's a rule that the business analyst can use to identify all of the needed stakeholders: roles, actions,
communications, and interest.
Answer: A

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NO.30 Enterprise analysis creates just five outputs. Which one of the following is an output of the enterprise
analysis tasks.?
A. Assumptions and constraints
B. Stakeholder concerns
C. Solution performance assessment
D. Solution approach
Answer: D

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NO.1 Which of the following is one of the reserved media placements available on YouTube?
A. Play rate
B. Partner Watch Pages
C. Display ad builder
D. AdWords Auction
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of the following tabs will you use to see and edit details of all the ad groups in your AdWords
account?
A. Ad groups
B. Campaign
C. Statistics
D. Status
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following tools will you use to identify potential ad group themes for your display
campaigns?
A. Google analytics
B. Google trends
C. Wonder wheel
D. Display ad builder
Answer: C

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NO.4 In the Google Content Network, there are three bidding strategies that a Google AdWords advertiser
may use. Which one of the following is NOT one of the three bidding strategies in the
Google Content Network?
A. Cost-per-acquisition bidding
B. Cost-per-month bidding
C. Cost-per-click bidding
D. Cost-per-thousand bidding
Answer: B

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NO.5 Andy is a consultant to a business that wants to advertise in the Google Content Network. He
recommends that the business owner use the contextual targeting for his ads. What is the contextual
targeting?
A. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific languages.
B. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to select keywords related to the products for sale
so his ads will show on related Websites.
C. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to target specific demographics.
D. The contextual targeting allows the business owner to insert ads into a series of related We bsites.
Answer: B

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NO.6 Google makes many recommendations for Google AdWords users for direct response campaigns.
One of the recommendations Google makes is to implement cost-per-click bidding so that you only pay
when people click your ad. What other reason is valid for using the cost-per-click bidding?
A. If you want to be included in Google Content Network, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
B. If you are creating a display ad, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
C. If you want to include video overlays ads, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
D. If you want to use the Conversion Optimizer tool, you must use cost-per-click bidding.
Answer: D

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NO.7 Fred is a Google AdWords consultant for his client. He is explaining to his client that there are actually
three ways to add managed placements to an ad group. Which one of the following is NOT one of the
three methods Fred can use to add managed placements to an ad group?
A. Manually adding
B. Browsing the Web for placements with the Google AdWords toolbar
C. Copying from the automatic placement table
D. Using the Placement tool
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which of the following bidding strategies will you use if you are focused on a particular customer action,
such as leads or purchases?
A. CPA bidding
B. CPM bidding
C. Manual CPC bidding
D. Automatic CPC bidding
Answer: A

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NO.9 Mary Jane wants to use the view-through conversion tracking feature in Google AdWords. How long
must Mary Jane's ad run before she can use this feature accurately?
A. 30 days
B. 60 days
C. 24 hours
D. 7 days
Answer: A

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NO.10 Google has some very specific recommendations for planning a display campaign. According to Google,
what is the top recommendation for planning an effective display campaign?
A. Set your bids and budget.
B. Identify your goals.
C. Find your target audience.
D. Create your custom display ad.
Answer: B

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NO.11 Examine the image given below:
What Google Tool is being used in the image above?
A. Google Wonder Wheel
B. Google Rich Media Ad Builder
C. Google Ad Builder
D. Google Ads Diagnostic Tool
Answer: C

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NO.12 You are managing a Google AdWords campaign for a company. You launch a new display campaign.
In the first week of the campaign launch, you noticed a large number of clicksbut no conversions. Which
of the following actions can you perform to resolve the issue?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Increase bidding for successful sites.
B. Verify that your conversion code is set up correctly.
C. Evaluate performance of campaign regularly.
D. Check the ad creative and the landing page to make sure they are well matched.
Answer: B,D

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NO.13 Jan has a Website selling shoes and socks online. She would like to use Google AdWords'
costperacquisition approach for her ads. If Jan uses this approach what must she also do?
A. Jan must also use Google Checkout.
B. Jan must be a preferred Google vendor.
C. Jan must use the Conversion Optimizer.
D. Jan must set her CPC maximum bids to a minimum of 25 cents.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Amy is managing a Google AdWords campaign for her company. Her manager has asked Amy to
create a performance report for the overall campaign performance. What steps will Amy take to generate
this performance report?
A. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report for All Campaigns, and then she'll
select the Campaign Performance option.
B. Amy will click Reporting, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
C. Amy will click Campaigns, then Reports, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the Campaign
Performance option.
D. Amy will click Opportunities, then Keywords, then Create New Report, and then she'll select the
Campaign Performance option.
Answer: B

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NO.15 Which of the following is a Google property where display ads are eligible to appear?
A. MSN
B. YouTube
C. Wonder wheel
D. Yahoo
Answer: B

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NO.16 Consider the image shown below:
What will happen if you click on the "history of soccer" link in the image?
A. You'll be taken to the first page with the keyword "history of soccer" in the Google search r esults.
B. Another line will branch out from "soccer" with related links to the "history of soccer" link.
C. The "soccer" wheel will fade to the background and a new wheel called "history of soccer" will be
created.
D. Google AdWords will display ads related to the "history of soccer" for this keyword.
Answer: C

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NO.17 Allen is managing ads for his company and he'd like to include the ads in the Google Content Network.
Where does Allen configure automatic placements of ads in the Google Content Network for his
campaigns?C
A. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
B. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Networks" tab.
C. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Ad Settings" section on his
"Settings" tab.
D. Allen will select "Relevant pages across the entire network" in the "Network Settings" section on his
"Opportunities" tab.
Answer: A

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NO.18 Jeffrey has an online store that caters to collectors of antique pins based on comic book characters.
His audience is small, but dedicated. If you were advising Jeffrey about his online advertising sales, which
of the following would be the best strategy considering Jeffrey's audience?
A. Use the Google Content Network for niche placements.
B. Use the Google Content Network with automatic placements based on hundreds of comic-book based
keywords.
C. Use Google AdWords for search marketing.
D. Use Google AdWords with hundreds of comic-book based keywords.
Answer: A

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NO.19 Bob is reviewing his Google AdWords for the Google Content Network, which has been running for the
past sixty days. Bob is interested in the view-through conversion tracking. What is viewthrough
conversion tracking.?
A. It's the number of conversions that have happened after a user saw, but didn't click, Bob's ad.
B. It's the number of conversions that have happened from a video ad.
C. It's the conversion rate for ads in the Google Content Network.
D. It's the cost of conversions that have happened after a user saw Bob's ad online.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Henry has created a video that he'd like to include in the Google Content Network. His video is a
demonstration of a product that he sells on his website. With this type of content, what type of video
advertising is Henry interested in using in the Google Content Network?
A. Overlay video ad
B. In-stream video ad
C. Click-to-play video ad
D. Video placement ad
Answer: C

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NO.1 What limit does receiver sensitivity describe?
A. the maximum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate
B. the minimum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate
C. the receive signal level strength, which is always the same for each rate
D. the maximum output transmit power for receivers that are in range
E. the maximum RSSI to decode a packet at a specific data rate (5 - 45.45%)
Answer: B

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NO.2 Which of these statements is correct in regards to Fresnel zone and mesh network design? Choose all
that apply.
A. Mesh network design does not need to account for Fresnel zone.
B. Fresnel zone clearance of at least 60% is required for mesh radio links.
C. Fresnel zone only comes into play when designing Wi-Fi client coverage.
D. Fresnel zone, Free Space Path Loss, EIRP and receive sensitivity are all factors that should be
considered.
Answer: B,D

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NO.3 Which of the following statements is the best answer regarding lightning arrestors?
A. when installing where lightning is common
B. when installing where power surges are common
C. always, because the outdoor environment is unpredictable
D. whenever the appropriate regulatory agency requires them
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which technical specifications of the antenna should be considered during selection of an antenna?
A. Frequency range
B. Supported data rates and modulation technologies
C. Polarization
D. Gain
E. Encryption modes
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.5 What effect on RSSI does antenna polarization of the receiver cause?
A. an increase in RSSI when polarized the same as the transmitter
B. an increase in RSSI when polarized exactly opposite from the transmitter
C. no affect to the signal, if the antenna beamwidth are properly aligned.
D. no effect if the deployment is within 30 degrees latitude of the equator
Answer: A

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NO.6 What is the Aruba recommended mounting arrangement for a pair of identical omnidirectional antennas
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A. Over and under
B. One horizontal and one vertical
C. Any arrangement that separates the antennas by 45 degrees
D. Install the two antennas far apart
Answer: A

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NO.7 In RF mathematics, 1 Watt of power equals what measurement of dBm?
A. 1
B. 10
C. 20
D. 30
E. 100
Answer: D

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NO.8 What is the maximum percentage obstruction of the first Fresnel zone in a point to point link?
A. 35%
B. 40%
C. 50%
D. 60%
Answer: B

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NO.9 What are the recommended deployment scenarios for MST200.?
A. Part of a point to point link
B. Providing access to mobile clients
C. As a core node in a large mesh
D. As an edge node in a mesh
Answer: A,D

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NO.10 A radio with 100 mW of TX power is connected through a 50-foot cable with 3 dB of loss to an antenna
with 10 dBi of gain. What is the EIRP in mW?
A. 100 mW
B. 250 mW
C. 500 mW
D. 1 W
Answer: C

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NO.11 In an Aruba mesh design which mesh scenarios are valid?
A. Point-to-point
B. Point-to-multipoint (hub and spoke)
C. Point-to-point-to-point (linear)
D. Full mesh (redundant links)
E. All of the above
Answer: E

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NO.12 Which statement is most correct and should be considered in a typical handheld client Wi-Fi access
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A. The upstream and downstream link budgets between clients and mesh routers are symmetrical.
B. Client devices typically broadcast at higher EIRP than mesh routers.
C. Client EIRP and receive sensitivity is generally the limiting factor for range.
D. Mesh backhaul links and client access should all be on the same channel to maximize connectivity.
Answer: C

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NO.13 Which statement about Equivalent Isotropically Radiated Power (EIRP) is true?
A. EIRP is the path loss from the transmitter to the receiver in dB
B. EIRP is equal to ((transmit power + antenna gain) - connector and cable loss)
C. EIRP is not important because local regulations do not limit transmit power
D. EIRP is measured in relation to a spherical isotropic radiator
Answer: B

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NO.14 Consider a radio configured for 20dBm conducted power connected to a 3dbi antenna.
What is the resulting EIRP in mW?
A. 100 mW
B. 200 mW
C. 150 mW
D. 250 mW
Answer: B

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NO.15 When RSSI is increased by 6 dB, how many times approximately does the signal strength increase by?
A. 1 time
B. 2 times
C. 8 times
D. 4 times
Answer: D

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B. To open a set of menu options to change the page size and orientation
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A. Interactive Elements checkbox
B. Create PSD File Using Acrobat.
C. Acrobat 5 in the Compatibility pop-up menu.
D. PDF/X4:2008 in the Standard pop-up menu
Answer: A and C

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NO.3 In which of the following formats should line art be saved for creating graphics files?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. PNG
B. EPS
C. PDF
D. EMF
Answer: B, C, and D

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NO.4 Which of the following are properties of a path? Each correct answer represents a
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A. Fill
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C. Contents
D. Closure
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NO.5 Which of the following is not included in the Graphics file formats InDesign imports?
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B. Flash
C. Illustrator
D. InDesign
Answer: B

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NO.6 Which of the following features allows you to change the shape of an object in an
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A. Pathfinder panel
B. Preflight panel C.
Stroke panel
D. Swatches panel
Answer: A

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D. Type > Insert Special Character > Hyphens And Dashes > Discretionary Hyphen
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: 9A0-156
시험 이름: Adobe (Adobe® LiveCycle® ES2 Form Developer ACE Exam)
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NO.1 You are creating a form template that will be used as a starting point for a series of forms. Which file
format should you use to save your form template.?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which DOM is merged with the Template DOM to create the Form DOM when rendering an XML
based PDF?
A. The Data DOM
B. The Layout DOM
C. The Source Set DOM
D. The Configuration DOM
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which series of events are triggered when the Layout DOM and Form DOM are created?
A. The initialize, calculate and full events
B. The initialize, calculate and validate events
C. The enter, calculate and validate events
D. The change, calculate and validate events
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are creating a template by using LiveCycle Designer. The template will be posted to a public
Website as a standalone form. Customers will download and open the form using Adobe Reader. Which
file format should you use to save your form template?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: A

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NO.5 The form you are creating relies on a client-side script that will change the layout of the form based on
user actions. What file type should you create?
A. A non-interactive static PDF form
B. An interactive static PDF form
C. A non-interactive dynamic PDF form
D. An interactive dynamic PDF form
Answer: D

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NO.6 You are rendering an XML based PDF. In what order is the DOM created?
A. Data DOM, Template DOM, Form DOM, Layout DOM
B. Template DOM, Data DOM, Form DOM, Layout DOM
C. Template DOM, Data DOM, Layout DOM, Form DOM
D. Data DOM, Template DOM, Layout DOM, Form DOM
Answer: B

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NO.7 You are designing a PDF form that will contain a table where the user can add and remove rows. Which
form type should you create?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: A

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NO.8 You have added an insertion point to your form template. Which file format should you use to save your
form template?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: B

Adobe   9A0-156기출문제   9A0-156자료

NO.9 Which object is a child of the XFA DOM?
A. The Data Description DOM
B. The Data DOM
C. The dataSets DOM
D. The event DOM
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which DOM must be created before you are able to access the number of pages on a dynamic form
prior to it being rendered on a client s machine?
A. The Template DOM
B. The Data DOM
C. The Form DOM
D. The Layout DOM
Answer: D

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NO.11 Which DOM would you access to determine the value of a specific node in the XML data stream that
has been merged with the form template?
A. The Form DOM
B. The Source Set DOM
C. The Template DOM
D. The Data DOM
Answer: D

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NO.12 You are designing a PDF form where end-users will need to add annotations or comments to the PDF.
Which form type should you create?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe XML Form (*.xdp)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Static PDF form (*.pdf)
Answer: D

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NO.13 You are creating multiple forms and want to ensure the smallest file size when saved to the server. What
file type should you create?
A. Adobe Dynamic XML Form (*.pdf)
B. Adobe Static PDF Form (*.pdf)
C. Adobe LiveCycle Designer Template (*.tds)
D. Adobe Acrobat form (*.pdf)
Answer: A

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NO.14 Which event signals that an XML based PDF has been fully rendered as a PDF?
A. form:ready
B. layout:ready
C. docReady
D. intialize
Answer: C

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NO.15 In which version of Adobe Reader are the dynamic features of the XFA Object Model supported?
A. Versions 5.x and greater
B. Versions 6.x and greater
C. Versions 7.x and greater
D. Versions 8.x and greater
Answer: C

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2014년 1월 27일 월요일

Microsoft 70-457 덤프데모

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시험 번호/코드: 70-457
시험 이름: Microsoft (Transition Your MCTS on SQL Server 2008 to MCSA: SQL Server 2012, Part 1)
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NO.1 You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012. You have a query that
runs slower than expected. You need to capture execution plans that will include detailed information on
missing indexes recommended by the query optimizer.
What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. Add a FORCESEEK hint to the query.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. Include a SET STATISTICS PROFILE ON statement before you run the query.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the
query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the
query.
Answer: K

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NO.2 You are developing a database application by using Microsoft SQL Server 2012. An application that
uses a database begins to run slowly. Your investigation shows the root cause is a query against a
read-only table that has a clustered index.
The query returns the following six columns:
. One column in its WHERE clause contained in a non-clustered index
. Four additional columns
. One COUNT (*) column based on a grouping of the four additional columns
You need to optimize the statement. What should you do?
A. Add a HASH hint to the query.
B. Add a LOOP hint to the query.
C. Add a FORCESEEK hint to the query.
D. Add an INCLUDE clause to the index.
E. Add a FORCESCAN hint to the Attach query.
F. Add a columnstore index to cover the query.
G. Enable the optimize for ad hoc workloads option.
H. Cover the unique clustered index with a columnstore index.
I. Include a SET FORCEPLAN ON statement before you run the query.
J. Include a SET STATISTICS PROFILE ON statement before you run the query.
K. Include a SET STATISTICS SHOWPLAN_XML ON statement before you run the query.
L. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL REPEATABLE READ statement before you run the
query.
M. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SNAPSHOT statement before you run the query.
N. Include a SET TRANSACTION ISOLATION LEVEL SERIALIZABLE statement before you run the
query.
Answer: F

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NO.3 You create a table that has the StudentCode, SubjectCode, and Marks columns to record mid-year
marks for students. The table has marks obtained by 50 students for various subjects. You need to ensure
that the following requirements are met:
. Students must be ranked based on their average marks.
. If one or more students have the same average, incremental ranks must be given based on the order
they are created.
. Ranks must be sequential without gaps in between.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT StudentCode as Code, RANK ( ) OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM
StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
B. SELECT Id, Name, Marks, DENSE_RANK () OVER (ORDER BY Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM
StudentMarks
C. SELECT StudentCode as Code, DENSE_RANK () OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value
FROM StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
D. SELECT StudentCode as Code, NTILE (2) OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM
StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
E. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM (SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANK () OVER (PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER BY Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
F. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FRCM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER 3Y Marks DESC) AS Rank FRCM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
G. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM (SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANK () OVER (PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
H. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM (SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANXO OVER (PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
Answer: C

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NO.4 You create a table that has the StudentCode, SubjectCode, and Marks columns to record mid-year
marks for students. The table has marks obtained by 50 students for various subjects.
You need to ensure that the following requirements are met:
. Students must be ranked based on their average marks.
. If one or more students have the same average, the same rank must be given to these students.
. Consecutive ranks must be skipped when the same rank is assigned.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use.?
A. SELECT StudentCode as Code, RANK ( ) OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM
StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
B. SELECT Id, Name, Marks, DENSE_RANK () OVER (ORDER BY Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM
StudentMarks
C. SELECT StudentCode as Code, DENSE_RANK () OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value
FROM StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
D. SELECT StudentCode as Code, NTILE (2) OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM
StudentMarks GROUP BY StudentCode
E. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM (SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANK () OVER (PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER BY Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
F. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FRCM ( SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER 3Y Marks DESC) AS Rank FRCM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
G. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM (SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANK () OVER (PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
H. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM (SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANXO OVER (PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
Answer: A

Microsoft   70-457 dump   70-457 dumps   70-457시험문제

NO.5 You create a table that has the StudentCode, SubjectCode, and Marks columns to record mid-year
marks for students. The table has marks obtained by 50 students for various subjects. You need to ensure
that the top half of the students arranged by their average marks must be given a rank of 1 and the
remaining students must be given a rank of 2.
Which Transact-SQL query should you use?
A. SELECT StudentCode as Code,
RANK ( ) OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM StudentMarks
GROUP BY StudentCode
B. SELECT Id, Name, Marks, DENSE_RANK () OVER (ORDER BY Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM
StudentMarks
C. SELECT StudentCode as Code,
DENSE_RANK () OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM StudentMarks
GROUP BY StudentCode
D. SELECT StudentCode as Code,
NTILE (2) OVER (ORDER BY AVG (Marks) DESC) AS Value FROM StudentMarks
GROUP BY StudentCode
E. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value
FROM (SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANK () OVER (PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER BY Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
F. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FRCM (
SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANK() OVER (PARTITION BY SubjectCode ORDER 3Y Marks DESC) AS Rank FRCM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
G. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM
(SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANK () OVER (PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY Marks ASC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
H. SELECT StudentCode AS Code,Marks AS Value FROM
(SELECT StudentCode, Marks AS Marks,
RANXO OVER (PARTITION BY StudentCode ORDER BY Marks DESC) AS Rank FROM StudentMarks)
tmp WHERE Rank = 1
Answer: D

Microsoft   70-457   70-457 dumps

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