2014년 2월 8일 토요일

Microsoft MB6-871 시험문제

우리 ITExamDump 에는 최신의Microsoft MB6-871학습가이드가 있습니다. ITExamDump의 부지런한 IT전문가들이 자기만의 지식과 끊임없는 노력과 경험으로 최고의Microsoft MB6-871합습자료로Microsoft MB6-871인증시험을 응시하실 수 있습니다.Microsoft MB6-871인증시험은 IT업계에서의 비중은 아주 큽니다. 시험신청하시는분들도 많아지고 또 많은 분들이 우리ITExamDump의Microsoft MB6-871자료로 시험을 패스했습니다. 이미 패스한 분들의 리뷰로 우리ITExamDump의 제품의 중요함과 정확함을 증명하였습니다.

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시험 번호/코드: MB6-871
시험 이름: Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Financials)
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NO.1 What is the maximum number of collection letter codes that can be created for a collection letter
sequence in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012?
A.1
B.3
C.5
D.6
Answer: C

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NO.2 Which of the following statements about value models for fixed assets in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 is
true?
A.Value models are a subset of the value of a fixed asset.
B.Value models are optional when setting up depreciation for a fixed asset.
C.Value models connect all financial information about fixed assets.
D.Value models are used to assign additional life cycles to a fixed asset.
Answer: C

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NO.3 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following are features of approval journals? (Choose all
that apply.)
A.Setting up journal templates with a mandatory approval setting.
B.Adding user groups through the workflow management functionality.
C.Applying journal templates after posting but before transferring to history.
D.Adding an extra layer of approval control by using the posting restriction option.
Answer: AD

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NO.4 You need to post an intercompany general ledger journal.
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, what should you set up to enable intercompany posting? (Choose all that
apply.)
A.Set up the intercompany journal name in both companies.
B.Set up the intercompany journal name in only one company.
C.Set up the intercompany posting accounts in both companies.
D.Set up the intercompany posting accounts in only one company.
Answer: AC

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NO.5 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following account types can you choose in a general
journal line? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Item
B.Ledger
C.Project
D.Sales Order
E.Vendor
Answer: BCE

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NO.6 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following transactions can be reversed by using the
Reverse Transaction functionality? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Customer transactions that relate to sales orders.
B.Vendor transactions that relate to purchase orders.
C.Fixed Asset transactions that relate to fixed asset postings.
D.General Ledger transactions that relate to general journal entries.
Answer: CD

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NO.7 You need to set up the main account so that the ledger transactions posted to that account are available
for the foreign currency revaluation process.
In the Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 Main account form, which fields should you select? (Choose all that
apply.)
A.Consolidation account
B.Foreign currency revaluation
C.Mandatory reference
D.Monetary
Answer: BD

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NO.8 You need to record fixed asset transactions by using journals.
In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, what should you do?
A. Create transaction text with the type Fixed asset Posting, Ledger.
B.In the General Ledger, create a journal for a Depreciation book.
C.In the General Ledger, create a journal name with the journal type Post fixed assets.
D.In the General Ledger, create a journal name with the journal type Fixed assets budget.
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which of the following statements about financial workflows in Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012 is true?
A.There is one workflow type for each module.
B.A workflow configuration is based on a workflow type.
C.A workflow configuration is based on a workflow style.
D.Within each workflow configuration, all approval nodes are used.
Answer: B

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NO.10 In Microsoft Dynamics AX 2012, which of the following types of information are required to create a
journal entry line in the General Ledger? (Choose all that apply.)
A.Account
B.Account name
C.Accounting date
D.Debit or Credit amount
E.Dimension
F.Offset account
G.Transaction text
Answer: ACDF

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Microsoft MB4-874 최신덤프

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시험 번호/코드: MB4-874
시험 이름: Microsoft (Microsoft Dynamics SL 2011 Installation and Configuration)
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NO.1 Which actions are part of a Microsoft Dynamics SL pre-installation preparation? Choose the 2 that
apply.
A. obtaining the tools and resources used before, during, and after the installation
B. ensuring the computer systems have sufficient hardware and software resources to run Microsoft
Dynamics SL
C. creating new, empty databases
D. activating Microsoft SQL Server replication
Answer: AB

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NO.2 Which of the following activities should you perform when protecting a customer accounting data?
Which of the following activities should you perform when protecting a customer? accounting data?
A. Verify the integrity of all backups currently on the machine.
B. Make an archival backup of the most current version of the accounting data.
C. Delete the old accounting data and start entering data in Microsoft Dynamics SL.
D. Export the old accounting data to a tab delimited file so it can be imported into Microsoft Dynamics SL.
Answer: B

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NO.3 What types of data are stored in the Microsoft Dynamics SL system database.? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. customer information
B. product registration
C. user information
D. vendor information
Answer: BC

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NO.4 Which of the following statements describe Microsoft Dynamics SL referential integrity? Choose the 2
that apply.
A. It is a function of the System Manager module.
B. It works in conjunction with Microsoft SQL Server referential integrity.
C. It ensures data updates are synchronized across all linked tables.
D. Its functions are programmed into the Microsoft Dynamics SL application.
Answer: CD

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NO.5 Which of the following items affect how much hard drive space Microsoft Dynamics SL databases will
consume? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. transaction volume
B. storage of Microsoft Dynamics SL Help files
C. installation of the Microsoft Dynamics SL software development kit
D. data detail retention settings
Answer: AD

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NO.6 In relation to Microsoft Dynamics SL, Microsoft SQL Server security controls which of the following
actions?
A. giving permission to log into a specific company
B. enforcing referential integrity
C. allowing access to financial windows and reports
D. granting, revoking, and limiting database access
Answer: D

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NO.7 A customer is interested in purchasing the following modules: Accounts Payable Accounts Receivable
General Ledger Project Controller Which edition of Microsoft Dynamics SL does this customer need?
A. Advanced Management
B. Business Essentials
C. Multi-User Standard
D. Professional
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following Microsoft SQL Server licensing modes can be used with Microsoft Dynamics SL?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A. per network
B. per processor
C. per seat
D. per server
Answer: BC

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NO.9 Which of the following considerations are important for the people creating the implementation plan for
Microsoft Dynamics SL to know? Choose the 2 that apply.
A. whether the IPX/SPX protocol is installed on their server
B. whether there any special considerations such as custom reports and custom screens
C. whether remote connectivity is needed
D. whether a printer is connected to the server
Answer: BC

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NO.10 Which of the following operating systems are supported for a Microsoft Dynamics SL File Server?
Choose the 2 that apply.
A. Windows Server 2008 Enterprise R2 Service Pack 1
B. Windows Server 2008 Standard Service Pack 2
C. Windows Small Business Server 2008 R2
D. Windows Small Business Server 2008
Answer: AB

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2014년 2월 7일 금요일

CWAP 자격증 PW0-270 시험문제와 답

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시험 번호/코드: PW0-270
시험 이름: CWAP (Certified Wireless Analysis Professional)
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Q&A: 60 문항
업데이트: 2014-02-06

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NO.1 In the frame decode shown, there are two sets of supported data rates. 1, 2, 5.5, and 11 Mbps are all
shown as "basic" data rates, and 6, 9, 12, 18, 24, 36, 48, and 54 Mbps are shown simply as supported
data rates.
What is true of "basic" data rates in this context?
A. The AP requires all client stations to support Basic rates in order to associate to its BSS.
B. The highest data rate set to Basic is automatically used to send broadcast traffic such as Beacon
frames.
C. Basic rates are optional data rates for the BSS, often used for assuring connectivity for legacy stations.
D. Basic rates are only used for multicast traffic, and do not affect unicast traffic.
E. Basic rates are defined in an AP's service set to specify mandatory data rates for all retry frames.
Answer: A

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NO.2 When a 5 GHz HT station in a 40 MHz BSS desires to protect a 40 MHz transmission from an OFDM
station using an RTS/CTS or CTS-to-Self exchange, what frame format is used for the RTS and/or CTS
frames?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Dual-CTS
D. Non-HT Duplicate
E. Phased Coexistence PPDU
Answer: D

CWAP pdf   PW0-270기출문제   PW0-270   PW0-270 pdf

NO.3 Which statements are true regarding Beacons from an AP in an HT infrastructure BSS that is configured
with multiple WLAN profiles? (Choose 3)
A. Beacons can be disabled for security purposes.
B. The BSSID and Source Address are always the same.
C. The Destination Address is always FF:FF:FF:FF:FF:FF.
D. The Receiver address and the BSSID are always the same.
E. When the SSID is "hidden," the ESS subfield of the Capability Information field distinguishes one BSS
from another.
F. All Beacons generated by APs contain a TIM information element.
G. The Beacon interval must be the same for all WLANs (SSIDs) supported by a single AP
Answer: B,C,F

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NO.4 According to 802.11-2007, in what frame type(s) might you find the PMK Count and PMKID List fields?
A. All frames that include the RSN IE
B. Only (Re)Association Request frames
C. Beacon and Probe Response frames
D. EAPoL 4-Way Handshake frames
E. Authentication and Association Request and Response frames
Answer: B

CWAP   PW0-270자료   PW0-270   PW0-270

NO.5 What IEEE 802.11 technology is illustrated by the exhibit?
A. Fragmentation
B. TCP Fragment Bursting
C. A-MSDU
D. A-MPDU E. U-APSD
F. Jumbo frames
Answer: C

CWAP자격증   PW0-270   PW0-270 dump

NO.6 In which 802.11 frames is the SSID present, provided the SSID is not removed through proprietary
software configuration by an administrator? (Choose 3)
A. Association Request
B. Reassociation Request
C. Probe Response
D. Disassociation
E. Authentication
F. Association Response
Answer: A,B,C

CWAP시험문제   PW0-270 dumps   PW0-270덤프   PW0-270

NO.7 What is the purpose of a PHY preamble.?
A. It provides the receiver(s) with an opportunity for RF channel synchronization prior to the start of the
PLCP header.
B. It communicates important information about the PSDU's length, rate, and upper layer protocol-related
parameters.
C. It provides a cyclic redundancy check (CRC) for the receiving station to validate that the PLCP header
was received correctly.
D. It indicates to the PHY the modulation that shall be used for transmission (and reception) of the PSDU.
Answer: A

CWAP최신덤프   PW0-270   PW0-270   PW0-270   PW0-270시험문제

NO.8 Which statement is true regarding the Association Identifier (AID) used in IEEE 802.11 WLANs?
A. The AID has a maximum value of 2048, and is used to uniquely identify a wireless client station
associated with an access point.
B. The AID has a maximum value of 2007, and resides in the duration/ID field of a PS-Poll frame.
C. The client station is assigned an AID value in the 802.11 authentication response frame.
D. The AID field is present only in Beacons frames.
E. The AID is used by the access point in EDCA mode to reduce duplicate transmissions when sending
multicasts.
Answer: B

CWAP자격증   PW0-270자격증   PW0-270자료   PW0-270

NO.9 What HT PPDU format is shown in the exhibit?
A. HT-mixed format
B. HT-greenfield format
C. Non-HT format
D. Non-HT duplicate format
E. Dual Training Field format
F. ERP-OFDM format
Answer: A

CWAP덤프   PW0-270   PW0-270기출문제   PW0-270자료   PW0-270   PW0-270시험문제

NO.10 Using the exhibit as a reference, answer the following.
STA1 sent a data frame to Mesh AP2 destined for a local file server on the same subnet with MAC
address 00:11:22:33:44:55. Mesh AP2's mesh forwarding algorithm determined that the frame should be
forwarded through Mesh AP1.
In the frame sent from Mesh AP2 to Mesh AP1, what is true of the contents of the MAC header? (Choose
3)
A. SA = Mesh AP2's MAC Address
B. RA = Mesh AP1's MAC Address
C. TA = STA1's MAC Address
D. DA = 00:11:22:33:44:55
E. To DS = 0
F. From DS = 1
Answer: B,D,F

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시험 번호/코드: L50-503
시험 이름: LSI (LSI SVM5 Sales Consultant)
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NO.1 A long time customer and SVM prospect just called requesting your help to virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three ways that SVM's snapshot capabilities will help this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. SVM snapshots will eliminate tape from the customer's environment.
B. SVM makes it possible to keep the point-in-time snapshots online for extended periods of time and to
recover from them quickly.
C. SVM snapshots can eliminate the need to install backup agents on every virtual machine.
D. SVM snapshots will protect from physical failures.
E. SVM snapshots can be used to reduce time required to stage, test, and debug software applications.
Answer: B,C,E

LSI시험문제   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503

NO.2 Your SVM customer calls with questions about performance tuning in their VMware environment. One
of their storage arrays is not running fast enough to support the application for several days each month.
What would you recommend?
A. Buy a faster storage array and move the data with multiView.
B. Use multiCopy to copy the data to a different storage tier, stop the application and remount the data to
the copy.
C. Back up the data off a snapshot and restore it to a faster array.
D. Use multiMigrate to move the application's data to a higher performing storage tier for the busy days.
Answer: D

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NO.3 What are two ways that SVM supports consolidation? (Choose two.)
A. SVM can reserve space for future use on a LUN-by-LUN basis.
B. SVM can build RAID structures for enhanced data protection.
C. SVM can migrate data from multiple storage arrays onto a single storage array.
D. SVM can make snapshots of volume groups that are spread across multiple storage arrays.
Answer: C,D

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NO.4 Which statement describes tiered storage?
A. An infrastructure designed to lower the overall cost of storage by placing volumes on "fit for purpose"
storage based on defined cost, availability, and performance requirements.
B. An infrastructure designed to place data on the storage devices that have the lowest price per
megabyte ratio.
C. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a heterogeneous
model.
D. An infrastructure designed to place data on different storage devices to ensure a homogeneous model.
Answer: A

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NO.5 What are three functions of the SVM server? (Choose three.)
A. The SVM server processes control frames.
B. The SVM server processes data frames.
C. The SVM server manages metadata.
D. The SVM server translates addresses.
E. The SVM server moves data.
Answer: A,C,E

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NO.6 A warehousing company is in the process of a changeover to a new supplier thus switching out their
inventory. During this changeover, the business requires the highest performance of the inventory
database application. This database currently resides on Tier 3 storage. The customer's Tier 1 storage
has 15000 RPM Fibre Channel drives while the Tier 3 storage has 7200 RPM SATA drives. What is the
SVM solution for this customer?
A. Use the multi-pathing architecture to zone the host dedicated to the Tier 1 storage and zone a separate
host dedicated to Tier 3.
B. Non-disruptively promote the volumes from the Tier 3 storage to the Tier 1 storage before the
changeover and demote the volumes back to Tier 3 when the changeover is complete.
C. Define data policies which will automatically migrate data to Tier 1 and Tier 3 storage levels providing
instant tiering.
D. Non-disruptively place all of the 15000 RPM drives in one array and all of the 7200 RPM drives in
another array thus automatically tiering your storage to different workloads.
Answer: B

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NO.7 An SVM prospect just called requesting that you virtualize their data center using VMware. What are
three ways that SVM's volume management capabilities will help this customer? (Choose three.)
A. SVM allows users to quickly and efficiently create and manage volumes for each of the virtual
machines.
B. SVM eliminates the need to deal with ongoing LUN management at the array level.
C. SVM will prevent the virtual servers from running out of space.
D. SVM allows storage be provisioned and reallocated after use with the same simplicity as the virtual
servers.
E. SVM will size the volumes to the actual data size.
Answer: A,B,D

LSI   L50-503   L50-503

NO.8 Your customer calls to discuss their SVM servers and their consolidation project's impact on their SVM
server port count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with
eight ports. Which statement accurately describes what the impact will be?
A. They will need four more ports on each SVM server.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each SVM server.
C. They cannot change the SVM server's port count.
D. They will need eight more ports on each SVM server.
Answer: C

LSI자격증   L50-503 pdf   L50-503

NO.9 What are two functions of the Data Path Module? (Choose two.)
A. DPM processes control frames.
B. DPM processes data frames.
C. DPM manages metadata.
D. DPM translates addresses.
Answer: B,D

LSI최신덤프   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503자료

NO.10 What are two recommended ways of organizing pools? (Choose two.)
A. by host
B. by RAID level
C. by DPM
D. by users
Answer: B,D

LSI   L50-503   L50-503기출문제   L50-503

NO.11 What are three benefits of using thin provisioning? (Choose three.)
A. reclaiming trapped capacity
B. creating empty volumes to reserve capacity
C. expanding volume capacity automatically
D. making multiple copies of volumes for backups
E. saving money on overall storage costs
Answer: A,C,E

LSI   L50-503 pdf   L50-503자료

NO.12 Your customer calls to discuss their DPMs and their consolidation project's impact on their DPM port
count. They are moving from a pair of dual controllers with four ports to one dual controller with eight ports.
Which statement accurately describes what they should do.?
A. They will need four more ports on each DPM.
B. They will need four fewer ports on each DPM.
C. They will need eight more ports on each DPM.
D. They will not need to change their DPM port count.
Answer: D

LSI자격증   L50-503시험문제   L50-503

NO.13 Your client is concerned about disaster recovery. You are explaining that SVM can recover from both
physical and logical failures positioning the fact that the majority of failures are actually logical. What
would be a good example for your client?
A. file deletion
B. hardware failure
C. loss of a site due to a disaster
D. split-path architecture
Answer: A

LSI dump   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503

NO.14 When consolidating onto a new storage platform, what actually moves the data?
A. the Data Path Module
B. the SVM server
C. the storage array
D. the SAN switch
Answer: B

LSI인증   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503

NO.15 Why would a customer use thin provisioning to manage their storage?
A. to provision more physical capacity to a LUN than is actually needed
B. to cluster LUNs of similar type into one management entity
C. to add more volumes to a management domain than are supported by hardware
D. to create large virtual volumes based on a small amount of physical capacity
Answer: D

LSI덤프   L50-503   L50-503

NO.16 How can SVM's centralized management provide better performance?
A. by allocating capacity across RAID arrays
B. by striping volumes across RAID arrays
C. by mirroring volumes across RAID arrays
D. by provisioning additional servers
Answer: B

LSI dumps   L50-503   L50-503   L50-503

NO.17 What is an advantage of using thin provisioning over traditional capacity provisioning?
A. A thin volume serves up only the data blocks called for by a read or write request.
B. A thin volume automatically provisions additional capacity for large I/O read requests.
C. A thin volume holds only the changes (writes) made by hosts to the thin volume.
D. A thin volume migrates data from an existing LUN into a new pool.
Answer: C

LSI기출문제   L50-503기출문제   L50-503자격증

NO.18 A long time customer just called requesting your help justifying SVM as they virtualize their data center
using VMware. What are three reasons SVM's storage services would benefit this customer? (Choose
three.)
A. Rapid application recovery is easier with SVM's snapshot capabilities.
B. SVM will make provisioning easy and fast.
C. Disaster recovery will be less expensive than using traditional methods.
D. SVM will eliminate the need for tape.
E. SVM will automatically size storage to fit the data.
Answer: A,B,C

LSI시험문제   L50-503   L50-503자료

NO.19 In an IT center with several different vendors storage arrays, virtualized networked storage with SVM
provides migration of data to less expensive tiers of storage by doing what?
A. Pooling the storage into a server virtualization model whereby different servers can emulate hosts and
tier the data.
B. Pooling the storage into a networked virtualization model zoning the virtualized storage utilizing
third-party tools.
C. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into a centralized pool and then assigning
different applications and tiers to different pools.
D. Pooling the storage across different vendors?storage arrays into assigned volume groups and use
virtual servers to tier the data.
Answer: C

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NO.20 When moving existing LUNs into a pool, which feature would you use?
A. SVM multiCopy
B. SVM multiMirror
C. SVM multiView
D. SVM disk import
Answer: D

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HIO-301 덤프 HIPAA 인증

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시험 번호/코드: HIO-301
시험 이름: HIPAA (Certified HIPAA Security)
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NO.1 This standard requires that the entity establishes agreements with each organization with which it
exchanges data electronically, protecting the security of all such data.
A. Business Associate Contracts and Other Arrangements
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Chain of Trust Contract
D. Trading Partner Agreement
E. Assigned security responsibility
Answer: A

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NO.2 An addressable Implementation Specification of Facility Access Controls is:
A. Unauthorized Access
B. Security Configurations
C. Accountability
D. Maintenance Records
E. Media Disposal
Answer: D

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NO.3 This standard addresses restricting physical access to electronic PHI data through interface devices to
authorized users:
A. Facility Security Plan
B. Person or Entity Authentication
C. Workstation Security
D. Contingency Plan
E. Access Control
Answer: C

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NO.4 Documented instructions for responding to and reporting security violations are referred to as:
A. Business Associate agreement
B. Security Incident Procedures
C. Non-repudiation
D. Sanction Policy
E. Risk Management
Answer: B

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NO.5 The Security Management Process standard includes this implementation specification: A. Risk
Reduction Policy
B. Audit Control
C. Risk Management
D. Detection Procedures
E. Training
Answer: C

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NO.6 The objective of this standard is to perform a periodic review in response to environmental or
operational changes affecting the security of electronic protected health information.
A. Security Management Process
B. Integrity
C. Audit Controls
D. Evaluation
E. Transmission Security
Answer: D

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NO.7 Risk Management is a required implementation specification of this standard:
A. Security Incident Procedures
B. Technical Safeguards
C. Security Management Process
D. Information Access Management
E. Security Configuration Management
Answer: C

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NO.8 This HIPAA security category covers the use of locks, keys and administrative measures used to
control access to computer systems:
A. Technical Safeguards
B. Technical Services
C. Physical Security Policy
D. Administrative Safeguards
E. Physical Safeguards
Answer: E

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NO.9 The objective of this implementation specification is to conduct an accurate and thorough assessment
of the potential vulnerabilities to the confidentiality, integrity and availability of electronic protected health
information held by the covered entity.?
A. Risk Analysis
B. Network Management Policy
C. Security Policy
D. Access Controls
E. Audit Controls
Answer: A

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NO.10 Media Re-use is a required implementation specification associated with which security standard?
A. Facility Access Controls
B. Workstation Use
C. Workstation Security
D. Device and Media Controls
E. Access Control
Answer: D

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NO.11 The Contingency Plan standard includes this addressable implementation specification:
A. Access Authorization Procedure
B. Testing and Revision Procedures
C. Virus Protection Plan Procedure
D. Sanctions Policy and Procedure
E. Authentication Procedures
Answer: B

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NO.12 This is a program that is a type of malicious code. It is unauthorized code that is contained within a
legitimate program and performs functions unknown to the user.
A. Trojan horse
B. Distributed Denial of Service
C. Stealth virus
D. Polymorphic virus
E. Denial of Service
Answer: A

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NO.13 This addressable implementation specification is about procedures for ° ove r see i n ¡± w orkfor c
members that work with electronic protected health information or in locations where it might be
accessed.
A. Risk Management
B. Sanction Policy
C. Authorization and/or Supervision
D. Unique User Identification
E. Integrity Controls
Answer: C

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NO.14 This is a self-contained program that uses security flaws such as buffer overflow to remotely
compromise a system and then replicate itself to that system. Identify this program (threat):
A. Trojan horse
B. Trapdoor
C. Master book sector virus
D. Cracker
E. Worm
Answer: E

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NO.15 A required implementation specification of the contingency plan standard is:
A. Chain of Trust Agreement
B. Applications and Data Criticality Analysis
C. Security Training
D. Disaster Recovery Plan
E. Internal Audit
Answer: D

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NO.16 ° E va l ua ti o ¡± is a st and ard w i thin
A. Administrative Safeguards
B. Physical Safeguards
C. Technical Safeguards
D. Privacy Safeguards
E. Electronic Signatures
Answer: A

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NO.17 This is a documented and routinely updated plan to create and maintain, for a specific period of time,
retrievable copies of information:
A. Disaster Recovery Plan
B. Data Backup Plan
C. Facility Backup Plan
D. Security Plan
Answer: B

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NO.18 The HIPAA security standards are designed to be comprehensive, technology neutral and:
A. Based on NIST specifications
B. Based on ISO specifications
C. Reasonable
D. Scalable
E. Implementable
Answer: D

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NO.19 This is a standard within Physical Safeguards
A. Contingency Operations
B. Workstation Use
C. Security Incident Management
D. Disaster Recovery E. Disposal
Answer: B

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NO.20 The Security Incident Procedures standard includes this implementation specification:
A. Prevention Procedures
B. Alarm Device
C. Threat Analysis Procedures
D. Detection Procedures
E. Response and Reporting
Answer: E

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시험 번호/코드: GISP
시험 이름: GIAC (GIAC Information Security Professional)
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지금 같은 세대에 많은 분들이 IT업계에 관심을 가지고 있습니다. 이렇게 인재가 많은 사회에서 IT관련인사들은 아직도 적은 편입니다. 면접 시에도 IT인증 자격증유무를 많이들 봅니다. 때문에 IT자격증이 많은 인기를 누리고 있습니다.이런 살아가기 힘든 사회에서 이런 자격증들 또한 취득하기가 넘 어렵습니다.GIAC GISP인증시험 또한 아주 어려운 시험입니다. 많은 분들이 응시하지만 통과하는 분들은 아주 적습니다.

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NO.1 Which of the following heights of fence deters only casual trespassers?
A. 3 to 4 feet
B. 2 to 2.5 feet
C. 8 feet
D. 6 to 7 feet
Answer: A

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NO.2 When no anomaly is present in an Intrusion Detection, but an alarm is generated, the response is known
as __________.
A. False positive
B. False negative
C. True negative
D. True positive
Answer: A

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NO.3 Which of the following are used to suppress paper or wood fires?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Water
B. Kerosene
C. CO2
D. Soda acid
Answer: A,D

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NO.4 Which of the following statements about Switched Multimegabit Data Service (SMDS) are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is a logical connection between two devices.
B. It uses fixed-length (53-byte) packets to transmit information.
C. It supports speeds of 1.544 Mbps over Digital Signal level 1 (DS-1) transmission facilities.
D. It is a high-speed WAN networking technology used for communication over public data networks
Answer: C,D

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NO.5 Mark works as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. He wants users to access only those resources
that are required for them. Which of the following access control models will he use?
A. Role-Based Access Control
B. Discretionary Access Control
C. Mandatory Access Control
D. Policy Access Control
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which of the following attacks involves multiple compromised systems to attack a single target?
A. Brute force attack
B. DDoS attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. Replay attack
Answer: B

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NO.7 Which methods help you to recover your data in the event of a system or hard disk failure?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. Install a RAID system
B. Use data encryption
C. Install and use a tape backup unit
D. Install UPS systems on all important devices
Answer: A,C

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NO.8 Which of the following is the most secure authentication method?
A. Certificate-based authentication
B. Basic authentication
C. Digest authentication
D. Integrated Windows authentication
Answer: A

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NO.9 Fill in the blank with the appropriate value.
Service Set Identifiers (SSIDs) are case sensitive text strings that have a maximum length of_______
characters.
A. 32
Answer: A

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NO.10 Which of the following statements about DMZ are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It is an anti-virus software that scans the incoming traffic on an internal network.
B. It is the boundary between the Internet and a private network.
C. It contains company resources that are available on the Internet, such as Web servers and FTP
servers.
D. It contains an access control list (ACL).
Answer: B,C

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NO.11 Which of the following functions are performed by a firewall?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It hides vulnerable computers that are exposed to the Internet.
B. It logs traffic to and from the private network.
C. It enhances security through various methods, including packet filtering, circuit-level filtering, and
application filtering.
D. It blocks unwanted traffic.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.12 Which of the following refers to encrypted text.?
A. Plaintext
B. Cookies
C. Hypertext
D. Ciphertext
Answer: D

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NO.13 Which of the following protocols is used to establish a secure TELNET session over TCP/IP?
A. SSL
B. PGP
C. IPSEC
D. SSH
Answer: D

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NO.14 Sam works as a Web Developer for McRobert Inc. He wants to control the way in which a Web
browser receives information and downloads content from Web sites. Which of the following browser
settings will Sam use to accomplish this?
A. Proxy server
B. Security
C. Cookies
D. Certificate
Answer: B

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NO.15 You work as a Network Administrator for NetTech Inc. The company has a network that consists of 200
client computers and ten database servers. One morning, you find that a hacker is accessing
unauthorized data on a database server on the network. Which of the following actions will you take to
preserve the evidences?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. Prevent a forensics experts team from entering the server room.
B. Preserve the log files for a forensics expert.
C. Prevent the company employees from entering the server room.
D. Detach the network cable from the database server.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.16 Which of the following protocols is used to verify the status of a certificate?
A. CEP
B. HTTP
C. OSPF
D. OCSP
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following policies is set by a network administrator to allow users to keep their emails and
documents for a fixed period of time?
A. Retention policy
B. Password policy
C. Audit policy
D. Backup policy
Answer: A

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NO.18 Which of the following is a remote access protocol that supports encryption?
A. PPP
B. SNMP
C. UDP
D. SLIP
Answer: A

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NO.19 Which of the following terms refers to the protection of data against unauthorized access?
A. Auditing
B. Recovery
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: C

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NO.20 Which of the following is the best way of protecting important data against virus attack?
A. Updating the anti-virus software regularly.
B. Taking daily backup of data.
C. Using strong passwords to log on to the network.
D. Implementing a firewall.
Answer: A

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NO.21 Which of the following steps can be taken to protect laptops and data they hold?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Use slot locks with cable to connect the laptop to a stationary object.
B. Keep inventory of all laptops including serial numbers.
C. Harden the operating system.
D. Encrypt all sensitive data.
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.22 Which of the following are the benefits of information classification for an organization?
A. It helps identify which information is the most sensitive or vital to an organization.
B. It ensures that modifications are not made to data by unauthorized personnel or processes.
C. It helps identify which protections apply to which information.
D. It helps reduce the Total Cost of Ownership (TCO).
Answer: A,C

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NO.23 Which of the following types of attacks slows down or stops a server by overloading it with requests?
A. Vulnerability attack
B. Impersonation attack
C. Network attack
D. DoS attack
Answer: D

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NO.24 Which of the following statements about a fiber-optic cable are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose three.
A. It is immune to electromagnetic interference (EMI).
B. It can transmit undistorted signals over great distances.
C. It has eight wires twisted into four pairs.
D. It uses light pulses for signal transmission.
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.25 Which of the following statements about the bridge are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. It filters traffic based on IP addresses.
B. It forwards broadcast packets.
C. It assigns a different network address per port.
D. It filters traffic based on MAC addresses.
Answer: B,D

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NO.26 Which of the following statements about role-based access control (RBAC) model is true?
A. In this model, a user can access resources according to his role in the organization.
B. In this model, the permissions are uniquely assigned to each user account.
C. In this model, the same permission is assigned to each user account.
D. In this model, the users can access resources according to their seniority.
Answer: A

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NO.27 Which of the following statements about Digest authentication are true?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as clear text, rather than as a has value.
B. Digest authentication is used by wireless LANs, which follow the IEEE 802.11 standard.
C. In Digest authentication, passwords are sent across a network as a hash value, rather than as clear
text.
D. Digest authentication is a more secure authentication method as compared to Basic authentication.
Answer: C,D

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NO.28 Which of the following statements about smurf is true?
A. It is an ICMP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
B. It is a UDP attack that involves spoofing and flooding.
C. It is a denial of service (DoS) attack that leaves TCP ports open.
D. It is an attack with IP fragments that cannot be reassembled.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following are methods used for authentication?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Smart card
B. Biometrics
C. Username and password
D. Magnetic stripe card
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.30 Which of the following is a technique used to attack an Ethernet wired or wireless network?
A. DNS poisoning
B. Keystroke logging
C. Mail bombing
D. ARP poisoning
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: GSNA
시험 이름: GIAC (GIAC Systems and Network Auditor)
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Q&A: 368 문항
업데이트: 2014-02-06

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NO.1 John works as a Security Professional. He is assigned a project to test the security of www.we-
are-secure.com. John wants to get the information of all network connections and listening ports in the
numerical form. Which of the following commands will he use?
A. netstat -e
B. netstat r
C. netstat -s
D. netstat an
Answer: D

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NO.2 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Active
Directory-based single domain single forest network. The functional level of the forest is Windows Server
2003. The company's management has decided to provide laptops to its sales team members. These
laptops are equipped with smart card readers. The laptops will be configured as wireless network clients.
You are required to accomplish the following tasks: The wireless network communication should be
secured. The laptop users should be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated. In order to
accomplish the tasks, you take the following steps: Configure 802.1x and WEP for the wireless
connections. Configure the PEAP-MS-CHAP v2 protocol for authentication. What will happen after you
have taken these steps?
A. Both tasks will be accomplished.
B. The laptop users will be able to use smart cards for getting authenticated.
C. The wireless network communication will be secured.
D. None of the tasks will be accomplished.
Answer: C

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NO.3 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to print the super block and block the group information for the filesystem present on a system.
Which of the following Unix commands can you use to accomplish the task?
A. e2fsck
B. dump
C. dumpe2fs
D. e2label
Answer: C

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NO.4 John works as a Network Administrator for Perfect Solutions Inc. The company has a Linux-based
network. John is working as a root user on the Linux operating system. He wants to forward all the kernel
messages to the remote host having IP address 192.168.0.1. Which of the following changes will he
perform in the syslog.conf file to accomplish the task?
A. kern.* @192.168.0.1
B. !*.* @192.168.0.1
C. !kern.* @192.168.0.1
D. *.* @192.168.0.1
Answer: A

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NO.5 Sarah works as a Web Developer for XYZ CORP. She is creating a Web site for her company. Sarah
wants greater control over the appearance and presentation of Web pages. She wants the ability to
precisely specify the display attributes and the appearance of elements on the Web pages. How will she
accomplish this?
A. Use the Database Design wizard.
B. Make two templates, one for the index page and the other for all other pages.
C. Use Cascading Style Sheet (CSS).
D. Make a template and use it to create each Web page.
Answer: C

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NO.6 You work as a Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows Server 2008
network environment. The network is configured as a Windows Active Directory-based single forest single
domain network. You have installed a Windows Server 2008 computer. You have configured auditing on
this server. The client computers of the company use the Windows XP Professional operating system.
You want to audit each event that is related to a user managing an account in the user database on the
computer where the auditing is configured. To accomplish the task, you have enabled the Audit account
management option on the server. Which of the following events can be audited by enabling this audit
option.?
A. Access to an Active Directory object
B. Change of password for a user account
C. Addition of a user account to a group
D. Creation of a user account
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.7 Which of the following statements are true about locating rogue access points using WLAN discovery
software such as NetStumbler, Kismet, or MacStumbler if you are using a Laptop integrated with Wi-Fi
compliant MiniPCI card? (Choose two)
A. These tools can determine the rogue access point even when it is attached to a wired network.
B. These tools can determine the authorization status of an access point.
C. These tools cannot detect rogue access points if the victim is using data encryption.
D. These tools detect rogue access points if the victim is using IEEE 802.11 frequency bands.
Answer: B,D

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NO.8 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to use Kismet as a wireless sniffer to sniff the Weare-secure network.
Which of the following IEEE-based traffic can be sniffed with Kismet?
A. 802.11g
B. 802.11n
C. 802.11b
D. 802.11a
Answer: A,B,C,D

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NO.9 George works as an office assistant in Soft Well Inc. The company uses the Windows Vista operating
system. He wants to disable a program running on a computer. Which of the following Windows Defender
tools will he use to accomplish the task?
A. Allowed items
B. Quarantined items
C. Options
D. Software Explorer
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which of the following is Microsoft's implementation of the file and application server for the Internet
and private intranets?
A. Internet Server Service (ISS)
B. Internet Server (IS)
C. WWW Server (WWWS)
D. Internet Information Server (IIS)
Answer: D

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NO.11 John works as a contract Ethical Hacker. He has recently got a project to do security checking for
www.we-are-secure.com. He wants to find out the operating system of the we-are-secure server in the
information gathering step. Which of the following commands will he use to accomplish the task? (Choose
two)
A. nc 208.100.2.25 23
B. nmap -v -O www.we-are-secure.com
C. nc -v -n 208.100.2.25 80
D. nmap -v -O 208.100.2.25
Answer: B,D

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NO.12 Which of the following allows the use of multiple virtual servers using different DNS names resolved by
the same IP address?
A. HTTP 1.1
B. JAVA
C. HTML
D. VPN
Answer: A

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NO.13 Which of the following is a wireless auditing tool that is used to pinpoint the actual physical location of
wireless devices in the network?
A. KisMAC
B. Ekahau
C. Kismet
D. AirSnort
Answer: B

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NO.14 You work as the Network Administrator for XYZ CORP. The company has a Unix-based network. You
want to set some terminal characteristics and environment variables. Which of the following Unix
configuration files can you use to accomplish the task?
A. /etc/sysconfig/routed
B. /proc/net
C. /etc/sysconfig/network-scripts/ifcfg-interface
D. /etc/sysconfig/init
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following statements about the traceroute utility are true?
A. It uses ICMP echo packets to display the Fully Qualified Domain Name (FQDN) and the IP address of
each gateway along the route to the remote host.
B. It records the time taken for a round trip for each packet at each router.
C. It is an online tool that performs polymorphic shell code attacks.
D. It generates a buffer overflow exploit by transforming an attack shell code so that the new attack shell
code cannot be recognized by any Intrusion Detection Systems.
Answer: A,B

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NO.16 A Web developer with your company wants to have wireless access for contractors that come in to
work on various projects. The process of getting this approved takes time. So rather than wait, he has put
his own wireless router attached to one of the network ports in his department. What security risk does
this present?
A. None, adding a wireless access point is a common task and not a security risk.
B. It is likely to increase network traffic and slow down network performance.
C. This circumvents network intrusion detection.
D. An unauthorized WAP is one way for hackers to get into a network.
Answer: D

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NO.17 You check performance logs and note that there has been a recent dramatic increase in the amount of
broadcast traffic. What is this most likely to be an indicator of?
A. Misconfigured router
B. DoS attack
C. Syn flood
D. Virus
Answer: B

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NO.18 You run the wc -c file1.txt command. If this command displays any error message, you want to store the
error message in the error.txt file. Which of the following commands will you use to accomplish the task?
A. wc -c file1.txt >>error.txt
B. wc -c file1.txt 1>error.txt
C. wc -c file1.txt 2>error.txt
D. wc -c file1.txt >error.txt
Answer: C

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NO.19 You work as a Network Auditor for XYZ CORP. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Inherent risk
C. Secondary risk
D. Detection risk
Answer: D

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NO.20 Which of the following tools works both as an encryption-cracking tool and as a keylogger?
A. Magic Lantern
B. KeyGhost Keylogger
C. Alchemy Remote Executor
D. SocketShield
Answer: A

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