레이블이 ISC인 게시물을 표시합니다. 모든 게시물 표시
레이블이 ISC인 게시물을 표시합니다. 모든 게시물 표시

2013년 12월 16일 월요일

ISC 인증한 CISSP 덤프

최근 ISC인증 CISSP시험이 IT업계에서 제일 높은 인지도를 가지고 있습니다.바라만 보지 마시고ISC인증 CISSP시험에 도전해보세요. ITExamDump 의 ISC인증 CISSP덤프로 시험준비공부를 하시면 한방에 시험패스 가능합니다. ISC인증 CISSP덤프로 자격증취득에 가까워지고 나아가서는 IT업계에서 인정을 받는 열쇠를 소유한것과 같다고 할수 있습니다.

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시험 번호/코드: CISSP
시험 이름: ISC (Certified Information Systems Security Professional )
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NO.1 All of the following are basic components of a security policy EXCEPT the
A. definition of the issue and statement of relevant terms.
B. statement of roles and responsibilities
C. statement of applicability and compliance requirements.
D. statement of performance of characteristics and requirements.
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to
follow?
A.) Standards
B.) Guidelines
C.) Procedures
D.) Baselines
Answer: C

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NO.3 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to
secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet
business
objectives.
Answer: D

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NO.4 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are
used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for
transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A.) The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B.) The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C.) The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D.) The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A

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NO.5 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security
program?
A.) Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B.) Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C.) Development of a security awareness-training program
D.) Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

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NO.6 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A

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NO.7 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals
who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: D

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NO.8 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A.) Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B.) Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C.) Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D.) Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

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NO.9 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

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NO.10 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security.
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B

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NO.11 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D

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NO.12 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A.) Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B.) Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C.) Integrity, availability, and accountability
D.) Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

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NO.13 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to
implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A.) definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B.) statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C.) definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D.) description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

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NO.15 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity,
availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A.) Communications security management and techniques
B.) Networks security management and techniques
C.) Clients security management and techniques
D.) Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

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NO.16 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the
development of an information security policy?
A.) Information Systems
B.) Human Resources
C.) Business operations
D.) Security administration
Answer: C

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NO.17 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

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NO.18 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C

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NO.19 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

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NO.20 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and
responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C

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NO.21 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the
Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A.) Netware availability
B.) Network availability
C.) Network acceptability
D.) Network accountability
Answer: B

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NO.22 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C

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NO.24 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A

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NO.25 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed
for information systems resources?
A.) IS security specialists
B.) Senior Management
C.) Seniors security analysts
D.) system auditors
Answer: B

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NO.26 Network Security is a
A.) Product
B.) protocols
C.) ever evolving process
D.) quick-fix solution
Answer: C

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NO.27 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A

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NO.28 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A

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NO.29 Which of the following describes elements that create reliability and stability in networks
and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A.) Availability
B.) Acceptability
C.) Confidentiality
D.) Integrity
Answer: A

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NO.30 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the
following?
A.) Confidentiality
B.) integrity
C.) acceptability
D.) availability
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: CSSLP
시험 이름: ISC (Certified Secure Software Lifecycle Professional Practice Test)
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NO.1 The Information System Security Officer (ISSO) and Information System Security Engineer (ISSE)
play the role of a supporter and advisor, respectively. Which of the following statements are true about
ISSO and ISSE? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. An ISSE manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
B. An ISSE provides advice on the continuous monitoring of the information system.
C. An ISSO manages the security of the information system that is slated for Certification & Accreditation
(C&A).
D. An ISSE provides advice on the impacts of system changes. E. An ISSO takes part in the development
activities that are required to implement system changes.
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.2 What are the various activities performed in the planning phase of the Software Assurance Acquisition
process? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Develop software requirements.
B. Implement change control procedures.
C. Develop evaluation criteria and evaluation plan.
D. Create acquisition strategy.
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.3 Which of the following individuals inspects whether the security policies, standards, guidelines, and
procedures are efficiently performed in accordance with the company's stated security objectives?
A. Information system security professional
B. Data owner
C. Senior management
D. Information system auditor
Answer: D

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NO.4 Which of the following security design patterns provides an alternative by requiring that a user's
authentication credentials be verified by the database before providing access to that user's data?
A. Secure assertion
B. Authenticated session
C. Password propagation
D. Account lockout
Answer: C

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NO.5 Adam works as a Computer Hacking Forensic Investigator for a garment company in the United States.
A project has been assigned to him to investigate a case of a disloyal employee who is suspected of
stealing design of the garments, which belongs to the company and selling those garments of the same
design under different brand name. Adam investigated that the company does not have any policy related
to the copy of design of the garments. He also investigated that the trademark under which the employee
is selling the garments is almost identical to the original trademark of the company. On the grounds of
which of the following laws can the employee be prosecuted?
A. Espionage law
B. Trademark law
C. Cyber law
D. Copyright law
Answer: B

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NO.6 In which of the following testing methodologies do assessors use all available documentation and work
under no constraints, and attempt to circumvent the security features of an information system?
A. Full operational test
B. Penetration test
C. Paper test
D. Walk-through test
Answer: B

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NO.7 The National Information Assurance Certification and Accreditation Process (NIACAP) is the minimum
standard process for the certification and accreditation of computer and telecommunications systems that
handle U.S. national security information. Which of the following participants are required in a NIACAP
security assessment.?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Certification agent
B. Designated Approving Authority
C. IS program manager
D. Information Assurance Manager
E. User representative
Answer: A,B,C,E

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NO.8 In which of the following types of tests are the disaster recovery checklists distributed to the members
of disaster recovery team and asked to review the assigned checklist?
A. Parallel test
B. Simulation test
C. Full-interruption test
D. Checklist test
Answer: D

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NO.9 Which of the following processes culminates in an agreement between key players that a system in its
current configuration and operation provides adequate protection controls?
A. Information Assurance (IA)
B. Information systems security engineering (ISSE)
C. Certification and accreditation (C&A)
D. Risk Management
Answer: C

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NO.10 Which of the following process areas does the SSE-CMM define in the 'Project and Organizational
Practices' category? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Provide Ongoing Skills and Knowledge
B. Verify and Validate Security
C. Manage Project Risk
D. Improve Organization's System Engineering Process
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.11 You work as a Security Manager for Tech Perfect Inc. You have set up a SIEM server for the following
purposes: Analyze the data from different log sources Correlate the events among the log entries Identify
and prioritize significant events Initiate responses to events if required One of your log monitoring staff
wants to know the features of SIEM product that will help them in these purposes. What features will you
recommend? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Asset information storage and correlation
B. Transmission confidentiality protection
C. Incident tracking and reporting
D. Security knowledge base
E. Graphical user interface
Answer: A,C,D,E

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NO.12 Which of the following roles is also known as the accreditor?
A. Data owner
B. Chief Risk Officer
C. Chief Information Officer
D. Designated Approving Authority
Answer: D

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NO.13 DRAG DROP
Drop the appropriate value to complete the formula.
Answer:

NO.14 Which of the following is the duration of time and a service level within which a business process must
be restored after a disaster in order to avoid unacceptable consequences associated with a break in
business continuity?
A. RTO
B. RTA
C. RPO
D. RCO
Answer: A

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NO.15 Which of the following DITSCAP C&A phases takes place between the signing of the initial version of
the SSAA and the formal accreditation of the system?
A. Phase 4
B. Phase 3
C. Phase 1
D. Phase 2
Answer: D

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NO.16 DoD 8500.2 establishes IA controls for information systems according to the Mission Assurance
Categories (MAC) and confidentiality levels. Which of the following MAC levels requires high integrity and
medium availability?
A. MAC III
B. MAC IV
C. MAC I
D. MAC II
Answer: D

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NO.17 Which of the following types of redundancy prevents attacks in which an attacker can get physical
control of a machine, insert unauthorized software, and alter data?
A. Data redundancy
B. Hardware redundancy
C. Process redundancy
D. Application redundancy
Answer: C

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NO.18 CORRECT TEXT
Fill in the blank with an appropriate phrase. models address specifications, requirements, design,
verification and validation, and maintenance activities.
A. Life cycle
Answer: A

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NO.19 John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned the project of testing the security
of www.we-are-secure.com. In order to do so, he performs the following steps of the pre-attack phase
successfully: Information gathering Determination of network range Identification of active systems
Location of open ports and applications Now, which of the following tasks should he perform next?
A. Perform OS fingerprinting on the We-are-secure network.
B. Map the network of We-are-secure Inc.
C. Install a backdoor to log in remotely on the We-are-secure server.
D. Fingerprint the services running on the we-are-secure network.
Answer: A

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NO.20 Which of the following penetration testing techniques automatically tests every phone line in an
exchange and tries to locate modems that are attached to the network?
A. Demon dialing
B. Sniffing
C. Social engineering
D. Dumpster diving
Answer: A

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NO.21 You work as a project manager for BlueWell Inc. You are working on a project and the management
wants a rapid and cost-effective means for establishing priorities for planning risk responses in your
project. Which risk management process can satisfy management's objective for your project?
A. Qualitative risk analysis
B. Historical information
C. Rolling wave planning
D. Quantitative analysis
Answer: A

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NO.22 Which of the following organizations assists the President in overseeing the preparation of the federal
budget and to supervise its administration in Executive Branch agencies?
A. OMB
B. NIST
C. NSA/CSS
D. DCAA
Answer: A

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NO.23 .Which of the following cryptographic system services ensures that information will not be disclosed to
any unauthorized person on a local network?
A. Authentication
B. Integrity
C. Non-repudiation
D. Confidentiality
Answer: D

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NO.24 Microsoft software security expert Michael Howard defines some heuristics for determining code review
in "A Process for Performing Security Code Reviews". Which of the following heuristics increase the
application's attack surface? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Code written in C/C++/assembly language
B. Code listening on a globally accessible network interface
C. Code that changes frequently
D. Anonymously accessible code
E. Code that runs by default
F. Code that runs in elevated context
Answer: B,D,E,F

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NO.25 Part of your change management plan details what should happen in the change control system for
your project. Theresa, a junior project manager, asks what the configuration management activities are
for scope changes. You tell her that all of the following are valid configuration management activities
except for which one?
A. Configuration Identification
B. Configuration Verification and Auditing
C. Configuration Status Accounting
D. Configuration Item Costing
Answer: D

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NO.26 The LeGrand Vulnerability-Oriented Risk Management method is based on vulnerability analysis and
consists of four principle steps. Which of the following processes does the risk assessment step include?
Each correct answer represents a part of the solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Remediation of a particular vulnerability
B. Cost-benefit examination of countermeasures
C. Identification of vulnerabilities
D. Assessment of attacks
Answer: B,C,D

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NO.27 You are the project manager for GHY Project and are working to create a risk response for a negative
risk. You and the project team have identified the risk that the project may not complete on time, as
required by the management, due to the creation of the user guide for the software you're creating. You
have elected to hire an external writer in order to satisfy the requirements and to alleviate the risk event.
What type of risk response have you elected to use in this instance?
A. Transference
B. Exploiting
C. Avoidance
D. Sharing
Answer: A

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NO.28 You work as a Network Auditor for Net Perfect Inc. The company has a Windows-based network. While
auditing the company's network, you are facing problems in searching the faults and other entities that
belong to it. Which of the following risks may occur due to the existence of these problems?
A. Residual risk
B. Secondary risk
C. Detection risk
D. Inherent risk
Answer: C

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NO.29 Which of the following models uses a directed graph to specify the rights that a subject can transfer to
an object or that a subject can take from another subject?
A. Take-Grant Protection Model
B. Biba Integrity Model
C. Bell-LaPadula Model
D. Access Matrix
Answer: A

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NO.30 According to U.S. Department of Defense (DoD) Instruction 8500.2, there are eight Information
Assurance (IA) areas, and the controls are referred to as IA controls. Which of the following are among
the eight areas of IA defined by DoD? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all
that apply.
A. VI Vulnerability and Incident Management
B. Information systems acquisition, development, and maintenance
C. DC Security Design & Configuration
D. EC Enclave and Computing Environment
Answer: A,C,D

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NO.1 Where can a project manager find risk-rating rules?
A. Risk probability and impact matrix
B. Organizational process assets
C. Enterprise environmental factors
D. Risk management plan
Answer: B

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.2 Which of the following system security policies is used to address specific issues of concern to
the
organization?
A. Program policy
B. Issue-specific policy
C. Informative policy
D. System-specific policy
Answer: B

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.3 Which of the following processes is a structured approach to transitioning individuals, teams,
and
organizations from a current state to a desired future state?
A. Configuration management
B. Procurement management
C. Change management
D. Risk management
Answer: C

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Topic 3, Volume C

NO.4 Topic 1, Volume A
1. The Chief Information Officer (CIO), or Information Technology (IT) director, is a job title
commonly
given to the most senior executive in an enterprise. What are the responsibilities of a Chief
Information Officer?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Preserving high-level communications and working group relationships in an organization
B. Facilitating the sharing of security risk-related information among authorizing officials
C. Establishing effective continuous monitoring program for the organization
D. Proposing the information technology needed by an enterprise to achieve its goals and then
working within a budget to implement the plan
Answer: A,C,D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.5 Penetration testing (also called pen testing) is the practice of testing a computer system,
network,
or Web application to find vulnerabilities that an attacker could exploit. Which of the following
areas can be exploited in a penetration test?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Race conditions
B. Social engineering
C. Information system architectures
D. Buffer overflows
E. Kernel flaws
F. Trojan horses
G. File and directory permissions
Answer: A,B,D,E,F,G

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NO.6 What does RTM stand for?
A. Resource Testing Method
B. Replaced Traceability Matrix
C. Requirements Traceability Matrix
D. Resource Tracking Matrix
Answer: C

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NO.7 David is the project manager of HGF project for his company. David, the project team, and
several
key stakeholders have completed risk identification and are ready to move into qualitative risk
analysis. Tracy, a project team member, does not understand why they need to complete
qualitative risk analysis. Which one of the following is the best explanation for completing
qualitative risk analysis?
A. It isa rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for the plan risk responses and
lays the foundation for quantitative analysis.
B. It is a cost-effective means of establishing probability and impact for the project risks.
C. Qualitative risk analysis helps segment the project risks, create a risk breakdown structure, and
create fast and accurate risk responses.
D. All risks must pass through quantitative risk analysis before qualitative risk analysis.
Answer: A

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.8 Which of the following is NOT an objective of the security program?
A. Security organization
B. Security plan
C. Security education
D. Information classification
Answer: B

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Topic 1, Volume A

NO.9 Kelly is the project manager of the BHH project for her organization. She is completing the risk
identification process for this portion of her project. Which one of the following is the only thing
that
the risk identification process will create for Kelly?
A. Project document updates
B. Risk register updates
C. Change requests
D. Risk register
Answer: D

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Topic 2, Volume D

NO.10 Which of the following assessment methodologies defines a six-step technical security
evaluation?
A. FITSAF
B. FIPS 102
C. OCTAVE
D. DITSCAP
Answer: B

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Topic 4, Volume B

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